问题
While investigating google plusone scripts, I've seen following syntax many times:
(0, _.Em)();
Assuming _.Em
is a function the statement above would result in calling that function, that's pretty obvious. If, on the other hand, it would be undefined, wouldn't the result be the same as doing simply _.Em()
?
Can anyone shed a light on what's idea behind using such syntax?
回答1:
Basically, this syntax allows to call _.Em()
in the context of the window
object instead of _
.
Assuming you have this code:
Foo = function() {
this.foo = "foo";
};
Foo.prototype.Em = function() {
alert(this.foo);
};
var _ = new Foo();
Issuing _.Em()
will result in Em()
being called in the context of _
. Inside the function, the this
keyword will refer to _
, so foo
will be printed.
Issuing (0, _.Em)()
decouples the method call from the object and performs the call in the global context. Inside the function, the this
keyword will refer to window
, so undefined
will be printed, since window
does not have a foo
property.
You can test the difference between the two syntaxes in this fiddle.
来源:https://stackoverflow.com/questions/9735424/whats-the-reason-for-using-such-syntax-0-em