Is this relationship between forall and exists provable in Coq/intuitionistic logic?
问题 Is the following theorem provable in Coq? And if not, is there a way to prove it isn't provable? Theorem not_for_all_is_exists: forall (X : Set) (P : X -> Prop), ~(forall x : X, ~ P x) -> (exists x: X, P x). I know this related relationship is true: Theorem forall_is_not_exists : (forall (X : Set) (P : X -> Prop), (forall x, ~(P x)) -> ~(exists x, P x)). Proof. (* This could probably be shortened, but I'm just starting out. *) intros X P. intros forall_x_not_Px. unfold not. intros exists_x_Px