Question about NP-Completeness of the Independent Set Problem
问题 I thought that, when proving that a problem P is NP-Complete, we were supposed to reduce a known NPC problem to P. But, looking at the solution to the Independent Set problem, it seems to not go this way. To prove that Independent Set is NP-Complete, you take a graph G, find its inverse G', and then compute CLIQUE(G'). But, this is doing the other way around: it's taking a problem P I DON'T know if it's NPC and then reduces it to a know NPC problem. Here's an example of the solution. What am