function

问题 In SSRS, is it possible to reference a report variable from a report function? Below is my report function. Instead of declaring and setting the MaxRFWIDRange in the function, I'd rather reference a report variable with the same name. Function ValidateRFWIDRange(FromRFW As Integer, ToRFW As Integer) As Boolean Dim DiffRFW As Integer Dim MaxRFWIDRange As Integer MaxRFWIDRange = 10000 DiffRFW = ToRFW - FromRFW If DiffRFW > MaxRFWIDRange Then Return False Else Return True End if End Function 回答1

问题 I'm writing a class and handful of functions to connect to the database and retrieve the information from the tables. I went through previous posts having similar titles, but most of them have written using mysql functions and I am using mysqli functions. I want somebody who can go through this simple script and let me know where I am making my mistake. This is my class.connect.php : <?php class mySQL{ var $host; var $username; var $password; var $database; public $dbc; public function

问题 I always thought that the prerequisites for a pointfree function were to get the function arguments to the end of the definition. E.g. -- This can be made pointfree quite easily: let lengths x = map length x let lengths' = map length -- However this cannot: let lengthz x = length `map` x -- let lengthz' = length `map` (parse error) I originally came across this reading this question. There we have this example: agreeLen :: (Eq a) => [a] -> [a] -> Int agreeLen x y = length $ takeWhile id $

问题 I have a rather complicated function in postgresql (Version 9.4.4) that I need a bit of help with. I have a loop (with lots of work below) declared like this inside of my function: CREATE OR REPLACE function getRSI( psymbol varchar, pstarttime timestamp with time zone, pendtime timestamp with time zone, pduration double precision, ptable varchar ) RETURNS SETOF rsi AS $BODY$ declare row_data record; -- some variables begin FOR row_data IN SELECT datetime, value FROM "4" WHERE symbol = 'AAPL'

问题 I have a rather complicated function in postgresql (Version 9.4.4) that I need a bit of help with. I have a loop (with lots of work below) declared like this inside of my function: CREATE OR REPLACE function getRSI( psymbol varchar, pstarttime timestamp with time zone, pendtime timestamp with time zone, pduration double precision, ptable varchar ) RETURNS SETOF rsi AS $BODY$ declare row_data record; -- some variables begin FOR row_data IN SELECT datetime, value FROM "4" WHERE symbol = 'AAPL'

问题 A function produces a result, can be used as argument of another function parameter. So, is a function call like: f(1,2,3) be considered as an "expression"? Thanks. 回答1: The C++ standard (N3376, §5.1) specifies an expression as: An expression is a sequence of operators and operands that specifies a computation. An expression can result in a value and can cause side effects. Further in the same section (§5.2.2): A function call is a postfix expression followed by parentheses containing a

问题 A function produces a result, can be used as argument of another function parameter. So, is a function call like: f(1,2,3) be considered as an "expression"? Thanks. 回答1: The C++ standard (N3376, §5.1) specifies an expression as: An expression is a sequence of operators and operands that specifies a computation. An expression can result in a value and can cause side effects. Further in the same section (§5.2.2): A function call is a postfix expression followed by parentheses containing a

问题 Recently I was confused about javascript hoisting behavior and now I got stuck with that. So, there are two examples. var alpha = 'alpha'; var beta = 'beta'; f(); //beta var f = function f1() { console.log(beta); }; function f() { console.log(alpha); } f(); // alpha The first one is working as expected, because the function declaration overwrite our variable f (with value "undefined") when Javascript is set up the Lexical Environment. But the second gives me a push, that I does not understand

问题 Recently I was confused about javascript hoisting behavior and now I got stuck with that. So, there are two examples. var alpha = 'alpha'; var beta = 'beta'; f(); //beta var f = function f1() { console.log(beta); }; function f() { console.log(alpha); } f(); // alpha The first one is working as expected, because the function declaration overwrite our variable f (with value "undefined") when Javascript is set up the Lexical Environment. But the second gives me a push, that I does not understand

问题 I am trying to create a function where users can select the operator they want to use, which result in a different output. But I can't seem to get it to work. I know that we can't assign operators into an R object and then use it as an operator based on the R object name. Is there a way I could do this? Or perhaps a better way to write the function? test <- function(items, operator = "+"){ bank_alpha <- matrix(ncol=6) colnames(bank_alpha) <- colnames(bank_alpha, do.NULL = FALSE, prefix = "Q")