I have a general question on whether something can be done - and whether it will be the most efficient way of doing it !
To summarise: can I pass an object collectio
Assuming SQL Server 2008+, you can do this using a table-valued parameter. First in SQL Server create a table type:
CREATE TYPE dbo.HobbiesTVP AS TABLE
(
HobbyID INT PRIMARY KEY,
HobbyName NVARCHAR(50),
HobbyTypeID INT
);
Then your stored procedure would say:
@Hobbies dbo.HobbiesTVP READONLY
In C# (sorry I don't know vb.net equivalent) it would be as follows (but if you just have one UserID, this doesn't need to be part of the collection, does it?):
// as Steve pointed out, you may need to have your hobbies in a DataTable.
DataTable HobbyDataTable = new DataTable();
HobbyDataTable.Columns.Add(new DataColumn("HobbyID"));
HobbyDataTable.Columns.Add(new DataColumn("HobbyName"));
HobbyDataTable.Columns.Add(new DataColumn("HobbyTypeID"));
// loop through objHobbyCollection and add the values to the DataTable,
// or just populate this DataTable in the first place
using (connObject)
{
SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand("dbo.User_Update", connObject);
cmd.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure;
// other params, e.g. @UserID
SqlParameter tvparam = cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@Hobbies", HobbyDataTable);
tvparam.SqlDbType = SqlDbType.Structured;
// ...presumably ExecuteNonQuery()
}