In C# are the nullable primitive types (i.e. bool?
) just aliases for their corresponding Nullable
type or is there a difference between th
To access the value of the bool? you need to do the following:
bool? myValue = true;
bool hasValue = false;
if (myValue.HasValue && myValue.Value)
{
hasValue = true;
}
Note you can't just do:
if (myValue)
{
hasValue = true;
}
A bool
is a value type, therefore it can't contain a NULL value. If you wrap any value type with Nullable<>
, it will give it that ability. Moreover, access methods to the value change by additional properties HasValue
and Value
.
But to the question: Nullable<bool>
and bool?
are aliases.
No there is no difference. In summary:
System.Boolean -> valid values : true, false
bool -> alias for System.Boolean
Nullable<bool> -> valid values : true, false, null
bool? -> alias for Nullable<bool>
Hope this helps.
I'm surprised nobody went to the source (the C# spec) yet. From §4.1.10 Nullable types:
A nullable type is written T?, where T is the underlying type. This syntax is shorthand for System.Nullable<T>, and the two forms can be used interchangeably.
So, no, there isn't any difference between the two forms. (Assuming you don't have any other type called Nullable<T>
in any of the namespaces you use.)
There is no difference between bool? b = null
and Nullable<bool> b = null
. The ?
is just C# compiler syntax sugar.
A Nullable<T>
is a structure consisting of a T and a bit flag indicating whether or not the T is valid. A Nullable<bool>
has three possible values: true, false and null.
Edit: Ah, I missed the fact that the question mark after "bool" was actually part of the type name and not an indicator that you were asking a question :). The answer to your question, then, is "yes, the C# bool?
is just an alias for Nullable<bool>
".