So...for example, I am trying to pull in an email \"template\" into an iframe as a \"preview\" for the user inside of an angularjs app. The iframe lives inside of the contr
From the standpoint of the browser there is nothing special about angular - this is javascript, that's all that matters. So I would say the answer to your questions is - yes, it should work.
Of course the constrains of the same origin policy will apply. Also asynchronicity may present some problems, but other than that it just should work
If you run the iframe and the parent document from the same domain name (so that no Cross-Site-Scripting-Restrictions apply) then you can call a JavaScript function in the iframe which you could pass data.
What you might be missing is that the iframe is a separate document from the viewpoint of the browser. So if this iframe should run AngularJS code, you will need to make it a separate AngularJS application.
Here is a example where both the parent document and the iframe are separate AngularJS applications and the value of a text input in the parent is sent upon change to the iframe where the AngularJS application running there will put the data into the scope.
http://plnkr.co/edit/NZiKGZ9D99JyntLJ7Lxk