I can\'t understand the answer to this question:
Consider an OS using one level of paging with TLB registers. If the page fault rate is 10% and dirty pages should be rel
In this context "effective" time means "expected" or "average" time. So you take the times it takes to access the page in the individual cases and multiply each with it's probability. The expression is somewhat complicated by splitting to cases at several levels. The cases are:
0.8(TLB + MEM)
0.2(loooong expression)
(the expression doesn't actually have that parenthesis, but I'll take it as a typo, because the coefficients don't add up to 1 without it and it makes no sense if they don't). The cases are:
0.9(TLB + MEM + MEM)
. One-level paging is mentioned, so it's just 1 extra memory access here, but practical implementations generally have two-level paging and would thus have 2 extra memory accesses.0.5(Disk)
.(MEM+Disk)
and read in the new content (Disk)
, giving the 0.5(2Disk + MEM)
I think some extra memory accesses should be included in the last two (swap) cases as two accesses are needed to mark the previous page unavailable and the new page available in the page table.
It is also highly unrealistic, because in real system when a room for reading in a page is needed, the system always chooses a clean page to replace. To make sure it has clean pages there is a background process that goes over dirty pages and writes them out. It takes some computing resources, so it should actually count toward memory access a bit, but much less since the page faults don't need to wait for the writes to finish.
The expression is actually wrong. It should be either
T = 0.8(TLB + MEM) + 0.2((0.9(TLB + MEM + MEM)) + 0.1(TLB + MEM + 0.5(Disk) + 0.5(2Disk + MEM)))
if page faults are 10% of TLB misses or
T = 0.8(TLB + MEM) + 0.1(TLB + MEM + MEM) + 0.1(TLB + MEM + 0.5(Disk) + 0.5(2Disk + MEM))
if page-faults are 10% of all accesses. You are not explicit about it, but I would assume the later if the formula didn't include that 0.2*0.9, which suggests the former.